In Romans 2:24, Paul cites Isaiah 52:5 and/or Ezekiel 36:20-23 to describe Israel’s effect on the nations. Israel was called to be a light to the world, to be a priest to the nations, and to cause Yahweh’s name to be honored among the Gentiles. Torah, and all the privileges associated with Torah, were given to Israel for precisely this reason. But they failed to keep Torah, they were not doers of Torah, and therefore the name of Yahweh is blasphemed among the nations.
In the passages that Paul cites, the blasphemy does not arise directly from Israel’s behavior. Rather, the pattern is this (particularly clear in Ezek 36; Isaiah 52:4-6 is pretty compressed): Israel defiled the land by her disobedience; Yahweh therefore sent Israel into exile; but once Israel was in exile, the Gentiles started taunting Israel and mocking Yahweh, asking questions like “If Yahweh is so great, why is His people in exile?”; it’s the very presence of Israel in exile, the fact that they are not safely in the land promised to them, that leads to blasphemy. In both passages, Yahweh says He is determined to intervene and save Israel so that the blasphemy will stop, and so that Israel will know that He is Lord. That is, what Israel failed to do (ie, bring honor to Yahweh among the nations), Yahweh is now doing on His own.
In Romans 2, Paul’s focus seems to be more on the sins of Israel as the cause of blasphemy, rather than on their exilic condition. But the latter cannot be excluded. Israel’s state in the world in Paul’s day, which was indeed the result of Israel’s sins, caused the nations to profane and blaspheme the name of Israel’s God. And Paul’s gospel is that God decided to do what Israel had failed to do. And we know the rest of the story: Yahweh BECOMES Israel in order to accomplish Israel’s calling for her. Since Israel failed to offer herself for the world, Yahweh offers Himself for the world.
Dear Reader,
Can I be direct with you?
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