Thomas defines sacraments in terms of their power to effect sanctification. Not all sacred signs are sacraments, but only those which are efficacious; they are signs of holy things that make men holy (ST 60, 2). Thomas also denies that sacraments were necessary in Eden, since there was no need to remedy sin (ST 61, 2).
With much of the Reformed tradition, I think Thomas is wrong about prelapsarian sacraments. But the reasons for affirming or denying prefall sacraments may have less to do with soteriology than eschatology. Does the belief in prefall sacraments rise and fall with belief in prefall eschatology, with the belief that Adam was destined to grow in perfection, from glory to greater glory?
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